Important General Knowledge questions to Crack Competitive exams in 2022

At present, competition in competitive exams is increasing continuously and every candidate wants to crack these exams like SSC, UPSC, Banking, Police, and Railway in their first attempt. But, first of all, candidates need to pay attention to the subject of general knowledge. Because, General Knowledge is the only subject for all the students that are much more detailed than Reasoning, the Mathematics section in the exam.

So, this article is useful for all those candidates who are preparing for competitive exams. It is very important for all students to know that General Knowledge (GK) is an important section of all government exams. While General Knowledge is an essential subject to help in various exams and cracks the interviews related to them, the current affairs, bank-finance, politics, history, sports, science-Technics for students to score full marks in GK subject. It is necessary to have special knowledge for all the students of the topic related to it.

Here in this article, we are providing every student with Important and Latest General Knowledge (GK) 2022: GK Questions, Topics, Mock Test, and Practice Tests. By solving all these types of GK questions quiz daily you can increase your speed and accuracy so that you can solve them according to the latest syllabus and pattern of competitive exams.

Following Important General Knowledge questions to Crack Competitive exams in 2022

General knowledge is an essential part of any competitive examination whether it’s a government job or other exams. Having proper knowledge of GK will help every student expand their knowledge and learn a variety of things. All students must score good marks in General knowledge to crack several examinations. As the topic covered under General knowledge is vast, we are helping them with GK by providing you with detailed information about GK topics.

 Important General Knowledge questions
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Also, some such general knowledge questions are also asked in the exam, which are a bit confusing for the students. So, before attempting the General Knowledge questions, think carefully and choose the correct option in the GK MCQ questions. Here is a list of important general knowledge questions.

Ancient Indian History GK Questions

  1. The Boghazkoi inscription was discovered in __?
[A] India
[B] Iran
[C] Syria
[D] Turkey

Answer: D [ Turkey ]

Notes: Homeland of Aryans: one of the inscriptions that prove that the Aryans are from Central Asia is the Boghazkoi (Asia Minor, Turkey ) Inscription.

2. In which Buddhist Council, Buddhism was divided into Mahayana and Hinayana sects?

[A] First Buddhist Council
[B] Second Buddhist Council
[C] Third Buddhist Council
[D] Fourth Buddhist Council

Answer: D [ Fourth Buddhist Council ]

Notes: Buddhism was divided into Mahayana and Hinayana in the Fourth Buddhist Council.

3. Which Ashokan pillar edict provides a list of animal and bird killing which was prohibited?

[A] Pillar edict V
[B] Pillar edict VIII
[C] Pillar edict XII
[D] Pillar edict X

Answer: A [ Pillar edict V ]

Notes: The Pillar edict-V of Ashoka provides a list of animals and birds that should not be killed on some days and another list of animals that have not been killed on all occasions and also describes the release of 25 prisoners by Mauryan Emperor Asoka.

4. Who was the author of the Jivaka Chintamani?

[A] Perudevanar
[B] Seethalai Saathanaar
[C] Tiruttakrdeva
[D] Ilango Adigal

Answer: C [ Tiruttakrdeva ]

Notes: The epic Tamil poem, Jivaka Cintamani (also known as Civaka Cintamani) is a Jain religious epic authored by Jain saint Tiruttakrdeva. This epic is considered one of the classic epics of Sangam Literature. The poem means “fabulous gem” and is also known as Manannul (Book of Marriages).

5. Which of the following book is the sequel of an epic ‘Silappadikarma’?

[A] Jivaka Chintamani
[B] Manimekalai
[C] Bharatman
[D] Kunal

Answer: B [ Manimekalai ]

Notes: The story of Manimekalai is a sequel to an epic ‘Silappatikaram’ that tells the story of the conversion to Buddhism of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi. Seethalai Saathanaar was the author of the book ‘Manimekalai’.

6. In the Sangam age, the book ‘Bharatam’ was written by__?

[A] Perudevanar
[B] Manimekalai
[C] Seethalai Saathanaar
[D] Tiruttakrdeva

Answer: A [ Perudevanar ]

Notes: The book, ‘ Bharatam’ was written by Perudevanar. The author also composed the invocatory verses for the Sangam classics Ahnanuru, Puranamuru, Kuruntogai, Narrinai, and Aingurunuru.

7. Which of the following rulers are known as the ‘Napoleon of India’?

[A] Samudragupta
[B] Ashoka
[C] Chandragupta I
[D] Skandgupta

Answer: A [ Samudragupta ]

Notes: Samudragupta believed in the policy of war and conquest and because of his bravery and generalship he is known as the “Napoleon of India” by historian Vincent. A. Smith.

8. Which of the following are the famous temples of the Gupta empire?

[A] Mukund Darra Temple, Kota
[B] Dasavtar Temple, Jhansi
[C] Vishnu Temple, Tigawa
[D] All of the above

Answer: D [ All of the above ]

Notes: The famous temples of the Gupta Age are as follows: a) Vishnu Temple, Tigawa(Jabalpur) b) Shiva Temple, Bhumara(Nagaud) c) Parvati Temple, Nachria Kuthara d) Dasavtar Temple, Deogarh(Jhansi) e) Shiva Temple, Koh(Nagaland) f) Bhitragaon Temple, Bhitragaon g) Lakshman Temple, Kanpur(Brick made) h) Lakshman Temple, Sirpur (Raipur) i) Mukund Darra Temple, Kota j) Dhammekh Temple, Sarnath k) Jarasangh’s Sitting, Rajgrih (Bihar)

9. That the homeland of the Aryans was Arctic Region, was propounded by ___?[A] Max Muller
[B] Edward Meyer
[C] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[D] Herzefeld

Answer: C [ Bal Gangadhar Tilak ]

Notes: The Arctic Home in the Vedas is a book on the origin of Aryans by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak The book was written at the end of 1898 but was first published in March 1903 in Pune. It propounded the theory that the North Pole was the original home of Aryans during the pre-glacial period which they had to leave due to the ice deluge around 8000 B.C. And had to migrate to the Northern parts of Europe and Asia in search of lands for new settlements. In support of his theory, Tilak has presented certain Vedic hymns, East Iranian passages, Vedic chronology, and Vedic calendars with interpretations of the contents in detail.

10. Who among the following is said to have crossed the Vindhyas in the later Vedic age and aryanise the south?

[A] Parashara
[B] Agatsya
[C] Jamadagni
[D] Vasistha

Answer: B [Agatsya]

Notes: During the Later Vedic Age the Aryans thoroughly subdued the fertile plains watered by Yamuna, Ganges, and Sadanira. They crossed the Vindhyas and settled in the Deccan, to the north of Godavari. Sage Agastya was the first to cross the Vindhyas.

For more Ancient Indian History GK Questions, click the link below:

Indian Polity & Constitution GK Questions

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?
[A] Rajya Sabha is a permanent body
[B] It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952
[C] Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President
[D] One-third of its members retire every year

Answer: D [One-third of its members retire every year]

Notes: The fourth statement is incorrect because one-third of its members retire every two years. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952. Twelve Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President.

2. The minimum and maximum age for a candidate to contest elections for President of India’s office?

[A] 25 years, 65 years
[B] 35 years, 65 years
[C] 35 years, no limit
[D] 25 years, no limit

Answer: C [35 years, no limit]

Notes: Article 58 of the constitution lays down the qualifications of a president in India. These qualifications are: He should be a citizen of India, He must have completed the age of 35 years must be qualified to become a Lok Sabha member. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or state government.

3. Which of the following acts created the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William?

[A] The Regulating Act 1773
[B] Indian Councils Act 1861
[C] Dundas Bill of 1783
[D] Charter Act of 1833

Answer: A [The Regulating Act 1773]

Notes: The regulating act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William, Calcutta. This Supreme Court consisted of one Chief Justice and three other regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court.

4. In which year National Commission for Minorities was established?

[A] 1989
[B] 1990
[C] 1991
[D] 1992

Answer: D [1992]

Notes: Officially, there are 6 minorities in India viz. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains. The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The commission is made up of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson, and five members. Unlike other bodies like NCSC and NCST, NCM has no constitutional backing or status.

5. Which among the following form is the 22nd state of the Indian union?

[A] Goa
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Sikkim
[D] Telangana

Answer: C [Sikkim]

Notes: Sikkim emerged as India’s 22nd state on 26th April 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.

6. Which among the following features of the Indian Constitution is not borrowed from British Constitution?[A] Parliamentary Form of Government
[B] Cabinet Form of Government
[C] Rule of law
[D] Concurrent List

Answer: D [Concurrent List]

Notes: Concurrent List has been borrowed from the Constitution of Australia.

7. Protection of wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India?

  1. Fundamental duties
  2. Directive Principles
  3. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct option from the codes given below:[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: D [1, 2 & 3 ]

Notes: The protection of wildlife was incorporated into the constitution via the 42nd amendment by adding Article 48 A which mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. The same amendment also included forests and protection of wild animals in the Concurrent List – Seventh Schedule (Article 256) of the Constitution. Protection of wildlife is also enshrined in Article 51 A (g) of the Constitution that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife.

8. JVP committee which was constituted in 1948-49 was related to which of the following?

[A] Industrialization of India
[B] Formation of new states on a linguistic basis
[C] National language of India
[D] Reservation for SC & STS

Answer: B [Formation of new states on a linguistic basis]

Notes: JVP committee was set up by Congress to study the recommendations of the Linguistic Provinces Commission (Dar Commission). It comprised Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya. The committee gave its report on 1 April 1949 and said that time was NOT suitable for the formation of new provinces. However, it also accepted the presence of strong public sentiment towards linguistic states in the country.

9. Who among the following held the office of Vice President of India for two consecutive terms?[A] Dr. R Venkatramanan
[B] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[C] Dr. VV Giri
[D] Dr. S Radhakrishnan

Answer: D [Dr. S Radhakrishnan]

Notes: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was elected as the first Vice-President of India in 1952, and elected as the second Vice-President of India (1962–1967).

10. Which of the following personalities was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?[A] K. M. Munshi
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] G. V. Mavalankar
[D] Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: D [Mahatma Gandhi]

Notes: Constituent Assembly was not directly elected on the basis of the adult franchise but it did comprise representatives from all sections of the society. It included all the important personalities with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.

For more Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs, click the link below:

Indian Economy GK Questions

  1. The stocks of which of the following banks are not considered for calculation of “Bank NIFTY”?[A] Kotak Mahindra Bank
    [B] Punjab National Bank
    [C] Yes Bank
    [D] Bank of India

Correct Answer: D [ Bank of India ]

The Bank Index commonly known as “NIFTY BANK” or “Bank NIFTY” was launched by India Index Service and Product Limited (IISL) in the year 2000. The index has 12 most liquid and large capitalized stocks from the banking sector which trade on the National Stock Exchange (NSE). It provides investors and market intermediaries with a benchmark that captures the capital market performance of the Indian Banking sector.  At present (June 2018), these banks include HDFC Bank, Kotak bank, State Bank Of India, ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, IndusInd Bank, Yes Bank, Bank of Baroda, RBL Bank, Punjab National Bank, And Federal Bank.

2. What is the number of members of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?[A] 4
[B] 5
[C] 6
[D] 7

Correct Answer: C [ 6 ]

The monetary Policy Committee (MPC) committee comprises six members – three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three external members nominated by the Government of India.

3. If there is an increase in external commercial borrowings in India. What will be the impact on the external debt of the country?[A] Increase
[B] Decrease
[C] Remain unaffected
[D] Either increase or decrease

Correct Answer: A [Increase]

Any money that has been borrowed from foreign sources for financing commercial activities in India is called External Commercial Borrowings. The Government of India permits ECBs as a source of finance for Indian Corporates for expansion of existing capacity as well as for fresh investment.

4. Which of the following commodities are directly affected by the fluctuations in international rates of crude oil?

[A] Edible Oils
[B] Cereals
[C] Gold & Silver
[D] Consumer nondurable

Correct Answer: C [Gold & Silver]

Gold and crude oil process have a direct relationship. The Rupee-Dollar exchange rate forms the basis for the movement of the Gold and silver process in the country. India is a net importer of crude oil. Whenever there is an increase in crude oil price in the international market, the demand for USD increases and hence leads to Rupee value depreciation against USD. Under this scenario, the import of gold and silver becomes costlier, and hence prices of gold move up.

5. Rs. 100 notes are printed in which of the following?[A] The Indian Security Press Nasik
[B] The Security Printing Press Hyderabad
[C] The bank Note Press, Dewas
[D] All1,2&3

Correct Answer: D [All1,2&3]

The currency notes in India are printed in 4 presses. Two of them are owned by the Government of India and are located in Nashik and Devas. Two others are owned by the Reserve Bank of India at Mysore and Salboni.

6. Which among the following is NOT a pillar of Basel II CRAR?[A] Minimum Capital Requirement
[B] Supervisory Review of Capital Adequacy
[C] Risk Management
[D] Market Discipline

Correct Answer: C [Risk Management]

7. In context with the Balance of Payments, the Merchandise exports, which refer to the sale of goods abroad belong to which among the following?[A] Credit Entry in the Current Account
[B] Debit Entry in the Current account
[C] Credit entry in the Capital Account
[D] Debit entry in the Capital Account

Correct Answer: A [Credit Entry in the Current Account]

8. Which of the following is correct about the Revenue Neutral Rate?[A] Tax policy adopted by the government such that the revenue receipt of the government is equal to the revenue expenditure

[B] Tax policy that allows the government to still receive the same amount of money despite changes in tax laws

[C] Tax policy that allows the government to make income tax more equitable
[D] Tax policy adopted by the government such that capital receipt of government compensates its revenue expenditure

Correct Answer: B [ Tax policy that allows the government to still receive the same amount of money despite changes in tax laws ]

The second option is the correct answer

9. Which of the following banks launched India’s first certified green bond at London Stock Exchange?[A] ICICI
[B] Axis

Correct Answer: B [ Axis ]

Axis Bank raised USD 500 million at the London Stock Exchange after it launched India’s first internationally-listed certified green bond to finance climate change solutions around the world.

10. Which of the following is/are correct statements with respect to the Saubhagya scheme?

  1. Its primary aim is to achieve universal household electrification
  2. The implementation agency for this scheme is Rural Electrification Corp.
  3. The scheme is 100% funded by Central Government

Which of the above statements is/are correct?[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: A [Only 1 & 2 ]

Recently, the government launched Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojna, named “Saubhagya”. The estimated cost for the scheme is Rs 16, 320 crores. The objective of the ‘Saubhagya’ is to provide energy access to all by last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country by December 2018. It will help reduce the use of kerosene lamps in non-electrified households. The scheme is being funded to the extent of 60% by central grants, 30% by bank loans, and 10% by states. Projects under the scheme would be sanctioned based on the Detailed Project Reports (DPRs) to be submitted by the States. There is no upfront allocation of funds under the scheme. Under the scheme, electricity connections will be given free to people identified by the Socio-Economic and Caste Census of 2011 while others will get it for Rs 500, payable in 10 installments in the bill. The Rural Electrification Corp will be the nodal agency for the implementation of the scheme throughout the country while public institutions and panchayats will be authorized to collect application forms, distribute bills and collect payments in consultation with Panchayati raj institutions and urban local bodies.

For more Indian Culture GK Questions, click the link below:

World Geography GK Questions

  1. Which of the following countries does not share its border with the Black Sea?
[A] Georgia
[B] Bulgaria
[C] Belarus
[D] Turkey

Correct Answer: C [Belarus]

The Black Sea is an inland sea located between far-southeastern Europe and the far-western edges of the continent of Asia and the country of Turkey. It’s bordered by Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia.

2. Which among the following are commonly known as shooting stars?

[A] Meteors
[B] Comets
[C] Planets
[D] Asteroids

Correct Answer: A [Meteors]

A meteor is usually a small object that occasionally enters the earth’s atmosphere. Some meteors are large and so they can reach the Earth before they evaporate completely. The body that reaches the Earth is called a meteorite.

3. Which among the following is the highest peak in Africa?

[A] Mount Kilimanjaro
[B] Mount Kenya
[C] Mount Algan
[D] Mount Hanang

Correct Answer: A [ Mount Kilimanjaro ]

Mount Kilimanjaro is a dormant volcano in Tanzania. It is the highest peak in Africa. It has three volcanic cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. It is the highest mountain in Africa and the highest single free-standing mountain in the world: 5,895 meters above sea level and about 4,900 meters above its plateau base.

4. Anatolia is a part of which among the following?

[A] Australia
[B] Asia
[C] North America
[D] Antarctica

Correct Answer: B [Asia]

Anatolia or Asia Minor constitutes the central part of the turkey. It is bounded by the Taurus Mountain in the south, the black sea in the north, and the Aegean Sea in the west, while the eastern boundary is formed by Mount Ararat and the Armenian knot. Anatolia is a plateau having undulating topography. The national capital of turkey (Ankara) is located in its central part.

5. Territories of which of the following does not touch the Dead Sea?

[A] Lebanon
[B] Jordan
[C] Israel
[D] Palestine

Correct Answer: A [ Lebanon ]

The Dead Sea is a salt lake bordered by Jordan to the east and Israel and Palestine to the west. It is also the lowest point in Asia, 395 meters down from sea level.

6. How many times Sun is heavier than Earth?

[A] 3,300 times
[B] 33,000 times
[C] 3,30,000 times
[D] 33,30,000 times

Correct Answer: C [3,30,000 times]

The sun lies at the heart of the solar system and it is the largest object. It holds 99.8 percent of the solar system’s mass and is roughly 109 times the diameter of the Earth. It is 3,30,000 times heavier than earth.

7. Which among the following two gases contributes to the beginning of the formation of stars?

[A] Hydrogen & Nitrogen
[B] Hydrogen & Helium
[C] Hydrogen & Oxygen
[D] Nitrogen & Helium

Correct Answer: B [Hydrogen & Helium]

The formation of the stars is explained by the Big bang theory. The big bang produced hydrogen and helium. Most of the heavier elements are created only by the thermonuclear fusion reactions in stars, so they would not have been present before the first stars formed.

8. The position of the star Polaris, which lies approximately at the north pole of earth changes slowly due to which among the following movements of the earth?

[A] Rotation
[B] Axial precession
[C] Orbital Revolution
[D] Plate Tectonics

Correct Answer: B [Axial precession]

The precession of the Earth’s axis has a number of observable effects. First, the positions of the south and north celestial poles appear to move in circles against the space-fixed backdrop of stars, completing one circuit in 25,772 Julian years (2000 rate). Thus, while today the star Polaris lies approximately at the north celestial pole, this will change over time, and other stars will become the “north star”

9. Which among the following is the major objective of NASA’s Kepler mission?

[A] To search for habitable planets
[B] To search for earth-like planets
[C] To search for alien life
[D] To search for potentially dangerous objects in space

Correct Answer: B [To search for earth-like planets]

The Kepler Mission is specifically designed to survey the Milky Way galaxy to discover hundreds of Earth-size and smaller planets. It is to find out the habitable zone and determine the fraction of the hundreds of billions of stars in our galaxy that might have such planets.

10.Nickel & Iron are the main constituents of __________?

[A] Earth Core
[B] Earth Crust
[C] Mantle
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A [Earth Core]

At the center of the Earth, we have the core, which has two parts. The solid, inner core of iron Which has a radius of about 760 miles (about 1,220 km). Surrounding it a liquid exists composed of nickel-iron alloy.

For more World Geography GK Questions, click the link below:

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